
2025 Valid CCSK Dumps for Helping Passing Cloud Security Alliance Exam!
Download Free Cloud Security Alliance CCSK Exam Questions & Answer
The CCSK certification exam covers a broad range of cloud security topics, including cloud architecture, governance, compliance, data security, and application security. CCSK exam is based on the Cloud Security Alliance's (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) and the CSA Security, Trust and Assurance Registry (STAR). The CCM is a comprehensive framework that provides security controls and best practices for cloud providers and consumers, while the STAR is a registry that allows cloud providers to demonstrate their compliance with industry-recognized security standards. By passing the CCSK exam, individuals demonstrate their understanding of these frameworks and their ability to apply cloud security best practices in real-world scenarios.
NEW QUESTION # 76
What is an advantage of using Kubernetes for container orchestration?
- A. Manual management of resources
- B. Limited deployment options
- C. Automation of deployment and scaling
- D. Increased hardware dependency
Answer: C
Explanation:
Kubernetes provides automated deployment, scaling, and management of containerized applications, which enhances operational efficiency and scalability. Reference: [CCSK v5 Curriculum, Domain 8 - Cloud Workload Security]
NEW QUESTION # 77
What is defined as the process by which an opposing party may obtain private documents for use in litigation?
- A. Subpoena
- B. Custody
- C. Scope
- D. Discovery
- E. Risk Assessment
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 78
Which of the following encryption methods would be utilized when object storage is used as the back-end for an application?
- A. Database encryption
- B. Client/application encryption
- C. Media encryption
- D. Asymmetric encryption
- E. Object encryption
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 79
Which of the following establishes commonly accepted control objectives, controls and guidelines for implementing measures to protect Personally Identifiable Information(PII) in accordance with the privacy principles in IS0/IEC 29100 for the public cloud computing environment?
- A. IS0 27017
- B. IS0 27034
- C. IS0 27032
- D. IS0 27018
Answer: D
Explanation:
IS0/IEC 27018:2014 establishes commonly accepted control objectives, controls and guidelines for implementing measures to protect Personally Identifiable Information(PII) in accordance with the privacy principles in IS0/IEC 29100 for the public cloud computing environment.
NEW QUESTION # 80
In the cloud provider and consumer relationship, which entity
manages the virtual or abstracted infrastructure?
- A. Only the cloud provider
- B. It is outsourced as per the entity agreement
- C. Only the cloud consumer
- D. Both the cloud provider and consumer
- E. It is determined in the agreement between the entities
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 81
Which of the following is not one of the essential characteristics as defined by NIST 800-145?
- A. Resource Pooling
- B. On-demand Shelf service
- C. Broad Network Access
- D. Rapid Elasticity
Answer: B
Explanation:
The key characteristic is on-demand self-service and not shelf" service.
NEW QUESTION # 82
Which one of the following is the key techniques to create cloud infrastructure?
- A. Authentication
- B. Classification
- C. Orientation
- D. Abstraction
Answer: D
Explanation:
The key techniques to create a cloud are abstraction and orchestration. We abstract the resources from the underlying physical infrastructure to create our pools, and use orchestration (and automation) to coordinate carving out and delivering a set of resources from the pools to the consumers. As you will see, these two techniques create all the essential characteristics we use to define something as a
"cloud."
Ref: CSA Security Guidelines V4.0
NEW QUESTION # 83
APIs and web services require extensive hardening and must assume attacks from authenticated and unauthenticated adversaries.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 84
Why is early integration of pre-deployment testing crucial in a cybersecurity project?
- A. It allows skipping final verification tests.
- B. It increases the overall testing time and costs.
- C. It eliminates the need for continuous integration.
- D. It identifies issues before full deployment, saving time and resources.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Integrating testing early helps identify security vulnerabilities and configuration issues before they reach production, reducing remediation costs and time. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 10 - Application Security]
NEW QUESTION # 85
What is a key consideration when implementing AI workloads to ensure they adhere to security best practices?
- A. Security practices for AI workloads should focus solely on protecting the AI models.
- B. AI workloads should be isolated in secure environments with strict access controls.
- C. AI workloads should be openly accessible to foster collaboration and innovation.
- D. AI workloads do not require special security considerations compared to other workloads.
Answer: B
Explanation:
AI workloads often require isolation and strict access controls to prevent unauthorized access and safeguard sensitive data involved in machine learning processes. Reference: [CCSK Study Guide, Domain 8 - AI Workload Security]
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which of the following is an assurance program and documentation registry for cloud provider assessments?
- A. CSA Cloud Controls Matrix
- B. CSA Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire
- C. CSA Star
- D. CSA governance charter
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Cloud Security Alliance STAR Registry is an assurance program and documentation registry or cloud provider assessments based on the CSA Cloud Controls Matrix and Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire. Some providers also disclose documentation for additional certifications and assessments(including self-assessments).
Ref: Security Guidance v4.0 Copyright2017, Cloud Security Alliance(used for educational purpose here)
NEW QUESTION # 87
Your cloud and on-premises infrastructures should always use the same network address ranges.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 88
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Object Storage?
- A. Stored in cloud
- B. Accessed through web interface
- C. Cannot be accessed through web interface
- D. Has additional Metadata
Answer: C
Explanation:
Object storage: Similar to a file share accessed via APIs or a web interface. Examples include Amazon S3 and Rackspace cloud files.
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following pose the biggest risk in the organization?
- A. People
- B. Access Controls
- C. Technology
- D. DDoS Attacks
Answer: A
Explanation:
People pose the biggest risk in the organization.
People form the biggest risk as they can expose the sensitive data accidentally or on purpose.
Disgruntled employees or careless employees form a great threat to the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 90
Which of the following is NOT normally a method for detecting and preventing data migration into the cloud?
- A. URL filters
- B. Cloud Access and Security Brokers (CASB)
- C. Data Loss Prevention
- D. Database Activity Monitoring
- E. Intrusion Prevention System
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 91
The process which frees the resources from their physical constraints to enable pooling is called:
- A. Automation
- B. Classification
- C. Orchestration
- D. Abstraction
Answer: D
Explanation:
Abstraction. often via virtualization. frees the resources from their physical constraints to enable pooling. Then a set of core connectivity and delivery tools(orchestration)ties these abstracted resources together. creates the pools. and provides the automation to deliver them to customers.
Ref: CSA Security Guidelines V4.0
NEW QUESTION # 92
An important consideration when performing a remote vulnerability test of a cloud-based application is to
- A. Use network layer testing tools exclusively
- B. Use application layer testing tools exclusively
- C. Use techniques to evade cloud provider's detection systems
- D. Obtain provider permission for test
- E. Schedule vulnerability test at night
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 93
Which of the following statements best describes an identity
federation?
- A. A group of entities which have decided to exist together in a single
cloud - B. Identities which share similar attributes
- C. The connection of one identity repository to another
- D. A library of data definitions
- E. Several countries which have agreed to define their identities with
similar attributes
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 94
Centralization of log streams is charactertic of which devices?
- A. DLP
- B. IDS
- C. IPS
- D. SIEM
Answer: D
Explanation:
SIEM is a combination of Security Incident Management(SIM)and Security Event Management(SEM).
A SEM system centralizes the storage and interpretation of logs and allows near real-time analysis which enables security personnel to take defensive actions more quickly. A SIM system collects data into a central repository for trend analysis and provides automated reporting for compliance and centralised reporting.
NEW QUESTION # 95
Which of the following is the key difference between cloud computing and traditional virtualization?
- A. Isolation
- B. Classification
- C. Abstraction
- D. Orchestration
Answer: D
Explanation:
Orchestration is the difference between cloud computing and traditional virtualization; virtualization abstracts resources. but it typically lacks the orchestration to pool them together and deliver them to customers on demand. instead relying on manual processes.
Ref: CSA Security Guidelines V4.0
NEW QUESTION # 96
Which of the following is correct about Due Care & Due Diligence?
- A. Due care is the act of investigating and understanding the risks a company faces whereas Due Diligence is the development and implementation of policies and procedures to aid in protecting the company. its assets and its people from threats.
- B. Due diligence is the act of investigating and understanding the risks a company faces whereas Due care is the development and implementation of policies and procedures to aid in protecting the company. its assets and its people from threats.
- C. None of the above definitions are correct.
- D. Due care is technical control whereas Due Deligence is physical control.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Definitions:
Due diligence is the act of investigating and understanding the risks a company faces.
Due care is the development and implementation of policies and procedures to aid in protecting the company, its assets, and its people from threats
NEW QUESTION # 97
ENISA: Lock-in is ranked as a high risk in ENISA research, a key underlying vulnerability causing lock in is:
- A. Unclear asset ownership
- B. Lack of completeness and transparency in terms of use
- C. Audit or certification not available to customers
- D. No source escrow agreement
- E. Lack of information on jurisdictions
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 98
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